The Union Public Service Commission conducted the Assistant Provident Fund Commissioner (APFC) exam on 10 January, 2016.

Questions

  1. LAN, WAN and MAN are computer networks covering different areas. Their first alphabets L, W and M respectively stands for
    (a) Local, World and Middle
    (b) Long, Wireless and Metropolitan
    (c) Local, Wide and Metropolitan
    (d) Least, Wireless and Maximum
  2. A rectangular garden is to be twice as long as its width. If 360 m of fencing including gates will totally enclose this garden, what is the length of the garden?
    (a) 120 m
    (b) 130 m
    (c) 140 m
    (d) 150 m
  3. The ‘Cloud Computing’ technology refers to
    (a) A set of algorithms that solves problems using fuzzy logic
    (b) Many computers that are interconnected through wireless network and satellites
    (c) A distributed computer architecture that provides software, infrastructure and platforms just as required by applications/users
    (d) A futuristic technology that will use clouds to perform computing
  4. Consider the following statements for Nanotechnology:
    1. It is the technology of creating materials and devices atom-by-atom.
    2. Physical properties change at the nanometer scale.
    3. Chemical properties change at the nanometer scale.
    Which of the above statements are correct?
    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 1 and 3 only
    (c) 2 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3
  5. The large Hadron Collider (LHC) used in the CERN project is a particle accelerator located on the border between
    (a) Spain and France
    (b) France and Germany
    (c) Spain and Switzerland
    (d) France and Switzerland
  6. The method of communication in which transmission can take place in both directions, but happens only in direction at a time, is called
    (a) Duplex
    (b) Half Duplex
    (c) Full Duplex
    (d) Simplex
  7. A collection of programs that controls how the computer system runs and processes information is called
    (a) Compiler
    (b) Operating System
    (c) Linker
    (d) Assembler
  8. SMPS is the acronym for
    (a) Store Mode Power Supply
    (b) Single Mode Power Supply
    (c) Switch Mode Power Supply
    (d) Start Mode Power Supply
  9. USB is the acronym for
    (a) Uniform Service Broadcasting
    (b) Unique Solution Bus
    (c) Universal Serial Bus
    (d) Universal Service Broadcasting
  10. In a chess tournament, each of the six players will play with every other player exactly once. What is the number of matches that will be played during the tournament?
    (a) 10
    (b) 15
    (c) 20
    (d) 25
  11. The Maternity benefit Act, 1961 (M.B. Act) provides for how many weeks’ wages during the maternity period?
    (a) 11 weeks
    (b) 12 weeks
    (c) 13 weeks
    (d) 14 weeks
  12. Which of the following are the instruments of providing social security in India?
    1. Income Tax
    2. Employees’ Provident Fund
    3. General Sales Tax
    4. LIC
    5. National Pension Scheme
    6. Postal Provident Fund
    Select the correct answer using the codes given:
    (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
    (b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
    (c) 2, 4, 5 and 6
    (d) 3, 4, 5 and 6
  13. A man buys apples at a certain price per dozen and sells them at 8 times that price per hundred. What percentage does he gain or lose?
    (a) 4% profit
    (b) 6% profit
    (c) 4% loss
    (d) 6% loss
  14. For which time intervals, is the percentage rise of population the same for the following data?

    (a) 1970-80 and 1980-90
    (b) 1980-90 and 1990-2000
    (c) 2000-2010 and 1990-2000
    (d) 1980-90 and 2000-2010
  15. Four quantities are such that their arithmetic mean (A.M) is the same as the A.M. of the first three quantities. The fourth quantity is
    (a) Sum of the first three quantities
    (b) A.M. of the first three quantities
    (c) (Sum of the first three quantities)/4
    (d) (Sum of the first three quantities)/2
  16. If the difference of two numbers is greater than the sum of the numbers, then
    (a) Both the numbers are negative
    (b) Exactly one of the number is negative
    (c) At least one of the numbers is negative
    (d) None of the above
  17. A palindrome is a number which reads the same from the left as well as from right, for example, 23732. What is the number of palindromes between 10 and 1010?
    (a) 101
    (b) 100
    (c) 99
    (d) 90
  18. In writing all the integers from 1 to 300, how many times is the digit 1 used?
    (a) 160
    (b) 140
    (c) 120
    (d) 110
  19. Consider the sequential integers 27 to 93, both included in the sequence. The arithmetic average of these numbers will be
    (a) 61.5
    (b) 61
    (c) 60.5
    (d) 60
  20. Consider the following statements in respect of Atal Pension Yojana:
    1. Beneficiary must be in the age group of 18 to 40 years.
    2. Beneficiary will receive the pension only after he attains the age of 60 years.
    3. After the death of a beneficiary, his spouse continues to receive the pension.
    4. No nominee of the beneficiary is permitted.
    Which of the above statements are correct?
    (a) 3 and 4 only
    (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
    (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
  21. If the Prime Minister of India is a member of the Rajya Sabha
    (a) He can make statements only in the Rajya Sabha
    (b) He has to become a member of the Lok Sabha within six months
    (c) He will not be able to speak on the budget in the Lok Sabha
    (d) He will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a no-confidence motion
  22. Which one of the following formed the basic premise for developing the Indian Consitition?
    (a) The Government of India Act, 1935
    (b) The U.S. Constitution
    (c) The British Constitution
    (d) The UN Charter
  23. The Malimath Committee (2003) looked at ways to reform the
    (a) Educational System in India
    (b) Criminal Justice System in India
    (c) Copyright Laws in India
    (d) Public-Private Partnership in India
  24. What are the disadvantage of Provident Fund Scheme?
    1. Money is inadequate for risks occurring early in working life.
    2. Inflation erodes the real value of savings.
    3. It generates forced saving that can be used to finance national development plans.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 1 and 3 only
    (c) 2 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3
  25. Besides resistance to pests, what are the other prospects for which plants have been genetically engineered?
    1. To enable them to withstand drought
    2. To increase the nutritive value of the produce
    3. To enable them to grow and do photosynthesis in spaceships and space stations
    4. To increase their shelf life
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
    (b) 3 and 4 only
    (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
  26. Consider the following items:
    1. Consumer goods and service
    2. Gross private domestic investment
    3. Goods and service produced by the Government
    4. Net income from abroad
    Which of the above items are included in GNP?
    (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
    (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
    (c) 3 and 4 only
    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
  27. Which of the following statements best describes the content of the theory of distribution?
    (a) The distribution of income among different individuals in the economy
    (b) The distribution of income between the Centre and the State Governments
    (c) The principle of just distribution of wealth and income
    (d) The distribution of income between the owners of factor resources
  28. The demand for a factor of production is said to be derived demand because
    1. It is a function of the profitability an enterprise
    2. It depends on the supply of complementary factors
    3. It stems from the demand for the final product
    4. It arises out of means being scarce in relation to wants
    Which of the above reasons is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 3 only
    (c) 2 and 4 only
    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
  29. Whenever countries set up a Free Trade Area they abolish all restrictions on trade among themselves and
    (a) They establish a common external tariffs on imports from outside countries.
    (b) They abolish all restrictions on imports from outside countries
    (c) They abolish all restrictions on imports from other Free Trade Areas
    (d) Each country maintains its own set of tariffs and quotes on imports from outside countries
  30. Which of the following are the functions of Foreign Investment Promotion Board (FIPB)?
    1. To ensure expeditious clearance of the proposals for foreign investment
    2. To review periodically the implementation of the proposals cleared by the Board
    3. To undertake all other activities for promoting and facilitating FDI as considered necessary from time to time
    4. To interact with the FIPC being constituted separately by the Ministry of Industry
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
    (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
    (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
    (d) 3 and 4 only
  31. The term ‘Dear Money’ refers to
    (a) Low rate of interest on housing loans
    (b) Value of money at the recession stage
    (c) High rate of interest
    (d) Saving gained due to decrease in rate of interest on housing loans
  32. A certain sequence of integers is constructed as follows:
    Consider 0 and 1 as the first two numbers. The next, i.e. the third number is constructed by their sums, i.e. 1. This process of constructing the next number by the sum of the last two constructed numbers continues. Taking these numbers 0,1, 1 as the first, second and third numbers in the sequence, what will be the 7th and 10th numbers, respectively?
    (a) 6 and 30
    (b) 7 and 33
    (c) 8 and 34
    (d) 10 and 39
  33. The Rangarajan Committee on disinvestment of shares in Public Sector Enterprises suggested that
    1. The percentage of equity to be divested should be no more than 49% for industries explicitly reserved for the public sector and it should be either 74% or 100% for others.
    2. Year-wise targets of disinvestment should be maintained.
    Which of the above statements is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
  34. The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties
    (a) With the consent of all the States
    (b) With the consent of majority of the States
    (c) With the consent of the States concerned
    (d) Without the consent of any State
  35. In the study of pollution, SPM refers to
    (a) Sulphur Phosphorus Matter
    (b) Sulphur Particulate Matter
    (c) Solid Particulate Matter
    (d) Suspended Particulate Matter
  36. Which of the following industries were first established during the British Rule in India?
    (a) Cotton Textile Industry; and Jute Industry
    (b) Jute Industry; and Iron and Steel Industry
    (c) Cotton Textile Industry; and Chemical Industry
    (d) Jute Industry; and Chemical Industry
  37. Which of the following are the roles of the Finance Commission in India?
    1. The distribution of money collected through taxes
    2. Evaluation of Centrally sponsored schemes
    3. Evolve principles based on which funds are allotted among States
    4. To develop Five Year Plans
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    (a) 1 and 4 only
    (b) 1 and 3 only
    (c) 2 and 4 only
    (d) 2nad 3 only
  38. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the International Monetary Fund (IMF)?
    1. India is a founder member of the IMF.
    2. India’s quote in the IMF is more than 4 percent.
    3. Finance Minister is represented ex-officio on the IMF.
    4. IMF conducts regular review of India’s economic status under Article IV.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
    (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
    (c) 2 and 4 only
    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
  39. A firm is purchasing two items, both on credit on the same day. The credit term offered for the first item is 2 ½/10, 1/20, net 30; and the credit term offered for the second item is 3/5, 2/15, net 30. The declared purchased cost of item 1 is Rs.60,000 and that of item 2 is Rs. 1,40,000. If both credit can be settled on the 14th day, what will be the total amount to be paid out?
    (a) Rs.1,97,200
    (b) Rs. 1,97,500
    (c) Rs. 1,96,600
    (d) Rs. 1,98,400
  40. What was the positon held by Dr. S. Radhakrishnan, before he became the Vice-President of India?
    (a) Ambassador to the U.S.A
    (b) Chairman U.G.C.
    (c) Chairman, Planning Commission
    (d) Ambassador to the Soviet Union
  41. Walking at 3/4th of his usual speed, a man reaches his office 20 minutes late. What is the time taken by him to reach the office at his usual speed?
    (a) 80 minutes
    (b) 70 minutes
    (c) 60 minutes
    (d) 50 minutes
  42. Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Surakshan Bina Yojana:
    1. It is applicable for all bank account holders up to the age of 60 years.
    2. It is a life insurance cover.
    3. It is an accident covers death and permanent disability due to accident.
    Which of the above statements are correct?
    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 3 and 4 only
    (c) 2 and 3 only
    (d) 1 and 4 only
  43. A and B run a 1 km race. A gives B a start of 50 m and still beats him by 15 seconds. If A runs at 8 km/h, what is the speed of B?
    (a) 4.4 km/h
    (b) 5.4 km/h
    (c) 6.4 km/h
    (d) 7.4 km/h
  44. In a race of 1 km, A can beat B by 40 m and B can beat C by 50 m. With how much distance can A beat C in a 0.5 km race?
    (a) 42 m
    (b) 43 m
    (c) 44 m
    (d) 45 m
  45. In an office, 40% of the employees are men and the rest women. Half of the employees are tall and half short. If 10% of the employees are men and short, and 40 employees are women and tall, the number of tall men employees is
    (a) 60
    (b) 50
    (c) 40
    (d) 30
  46. Which of the following were the main aspects of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact of 1931?
    1. Suspension of the Civil Disobedience Movement
    2. To take part in the then forthcoming Simla Conference
    3. Pay taxes for the period of the Civil Disobedience Movement
    4. Release of Political Prisoners
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    (a) 1 and 3 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 4 only
    (d) 2 and 4 only
  47. Which of the following is not an absolute measure of dispersion?
    (a) Range
    (b) Mean Deviation
    (c) Quartile Deviation
    (d) Coefficient of Variation
  48. A provision shop-owner is found to mix 25 kg of rice worth Rs.32 kg and 20 kg of rice worth Rs.35 kg and the mixed rice is sold at 15% profit. What is the selling price of the mixed rice?
    (a) Rs.35.40 kg
    (b) Rs.38.33 kg
    (c) Rs.36.50 kg
    (d) Rs.37.42 kg
  49. The original lay of a rectangular plot ABCD on open ground is 80 m long along AB, and 60 m wide along BC. Concreated pathways are intended to be laid on the inside of the plot all around the sides. The pathways along BC and DA are each 4 m wide. The pathways along AB and DC will mutually be of equal widths such that the un-concreted internal plot will measure three-fourth of the original area of the plot ABCD. What will be the width of each of these pathways along AB and DC?
    (a) 3 m
    (b) 4 m
    (c) 5 m
    (d) 6 m
  50. At a dinner party, every two guests used a bowl of rice between them, every three guests used a bowl of dal among them and every four guests used a bowl of curd among them. There are altogether 65 bowls. What is the number of guests present at the party?
    (a) 90
    (b) 80
    (c) 70
    (d) 60
  51. Social Security may provide cash benefits to person faced with
    1. Sickness and disability
    2. Unemployment
    3. Crop failure
    4. Loss of the marital partner
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
    (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
    (c) 3 and 4 only
    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
  52. If 5 men and 9 women can finish a piece of work in 19 days, 3 men and 6 women will do the same work in
    (a) 12 days
    (b) 13 days
    (c) 14 days
    (d) 15 days
  53. If the radius of a circle is reduced by 50%, it area will be reduced by
    (a) 30%
    (b) 50%
    (c) 60%
    (d) 75%
  54. Employees State Insurance Act, 1948 covers factors like
    1. Factories and establishments with 10 or more employees.
    2. Provision of comprehensive medical care to employees and their families.
    3. Provision of cash benefits during sickness and maternity.
    4. Monthly payments in case of death or disablement.
    Which of the above statements are correct?
    (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
    (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
    (c) 3 and 4 only
    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
  55. Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana:
    1. It is applicable to all adults above the age group of 18 years.
    2. The premium is deducted from the account holder’s bank account through ‘auto debit facility’.
    3. The life insurance worth is decided by the account holder and he was to pay the annual premium accordingly.
    4. The life insurance amount is given to the family after the death of the subscriber.
    Which of the above statements are correct?
    (a) 1 and 3 only
    (b) 1 and 4 only
    (c) 2 and 4 only
    (d) 2 and 3 only
  56. In an examination paper where maximum marks are 500, A got 10% marks less than B, B got 25% marks more than C, and C got 20% marks less than D. If A got 360 marks, what marks did D get?
    (a) 65%
    (b) 70%
    (c) 75%
    (d) 80%

Directions: Each of the next four (04) items consists of two statements, one labelled as the ‘Statement (I)’ and the other as ‘Statement (II)’. Examine these two statements carefully and select the answer to these items using the codes given below:

Codes:
(a) Both Statements (I) and Statements (II) are individually true and Statements (II) is the correct explanation of Statement (I)
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true but Statement (II) is not the correct explanation of Statement (I)
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is true
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true

  1. Statement (I): The effects of an income tax on consumption, saving and investment are micro effects.
    Statement (II): Income tax is an example of direction.
  2. Statement (I): Trade between two countries takes place on account of differences in costs.
    Statement (II): Different countries have different factor endowments.
  3. Statement (I): Foreign investment may affect a country’s export performance.
    Statement (II): Inflow of foreign exchange may cause appreciation of local currency leading to a rise in the price of export commodities.
  4. Statement (I): Speaker of the Lok Sabha appoints the Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee
    Statement (II): Members of Parliament, eminent persons from industry and trade are the members of the Public Accounts Committee.

Directions: The following ten (10) items (items 61 to 70) are on English Language; therefore, these items do not have Hindi Version.

  1. What is the indication out of the sentence:
    ‘I gave him a piece of my mind’?
    (a) Appreciation
    (b) Warning
    (c) Greeting
    (d) Scolding
  2. What is the meaning of the expression:
    ‘Blue blood’?
    (a) Polluted industrial waste water
    (b) Sap of teak wood
    (c) An aristocrat
    (d) A costly object
  3. ‘He was hoist by his own petard’ refers to
    (a) He had problems as a result of his own plans to hurt others
    (b) He was high up on the pole
    (c) He would usually run away from trouble
    (d) He was indifferent to his surroundings
  4. What is a Ballad?
    (a) A novel
    (b) A historical narration
    (c) A popular story or folktale in verse
    (d) Musical comedy
  5. Plagiarism means
    (a) There was an epidemic of plague in the area
    (b) It is a sort of political philosophy
    (c) It indicates a happy community spirit like in playing Holi
    (d) It is presenting the work of someone else as one’s own
  6. Rivalry between the two clans has become water under the bridge means
    (a) The rivalry continues
    (b) It has become a thing of the past
    (c) It connects the two clans
    (d) It is not forgotten
  7. Consider the sentence:
    “The teacher gave    me     the   book’.
    1          2       3         4        5        6
    where the words are numbered for convenience of reference. Consider also the insertion of a single word ‘only’ into this sentence to indicate a desired emphasis. Where shall this word be inserted if the emphasis is to be
    (i) On the recipient
    (ii) On the uniqueness of the item given
    (iii) On the giver
    respectively (only one at a time)?
    (a) (i) Between 3-4; (ii) After 6; (iii) Between 2-3
    (b) (i) Between 3-4; (ii) Between 5-6; (iii) Before 1
    (c) (i) Between 4-5; (ii) Between 3-4; (iii) After 1
    (d) (i) Between 2-6; (ii) Between 4-5; (iii) Between 1-2
  8. What is the meaning of the term ‘didactic’?
    (a) Intended to be inspirational
    (b) Teaching a moral lesson
    (c) Received as comical
    (d) Sharing an informative experience
  9. Consider the statement: ‘The message of peace and brotherhood permeated the address by the Chief Guest. Which of the following is meant by ‘permeate’ in this statement?
    (a) To advocate
    (b) To spread all over
    (c) To anchor and stabilize
    (d) To leave a permanent impression
  10. Arrange the following to form a grammatically correct sentence:
    1. Einstein was
    2. Although a great scientist
    3. Weak in Arithmetic
    4. Right from his school days
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    (a) 4, 1, 3 and 2
    (b) 2, 1, 3 and 4
    (c) 4, 3, 1 and 2
    (d) 2, 3, 1 and 4
  11. What is the chronological sequence of the following events?
    1. First Battle of Panipat
    2. Vietnam War
    3. French Revolution
    4. First Gulf War
    5. World War I
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    (a) 1, 5, 3, 2 and 4
    (b) 3, 1, 5, 4 and 2
    (c) 3, 1, 4, 5 and 2
    (d) 1, 3, 5, 2 and 4
  12. A branch of scholarship that flourished in Europe, particularly from the fifteenth to the eighteenth centuries, and was devoted to the appreciation, chronicling and classification of historic and non-organic relics, monuments and old texts refers to
    (a) Archaeology
    (b) History
    (c) Architecture
    (d) Antiquarianism
  13. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of ‘Stridhana’?
    1. Various types of movable property gifted to a woman on various occasions during her lifetime.
    2. Various types of movable property gifted to a woman at the time of her first marriage.
    3. On the woman’s death, this wealth could be inherited by her children and husband.
    4. On the woman’s death, this wealth could be inherited by her natural legally adopted children with none of the sons-in-law, having any claim on any part thereof.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    (a) 2 and 3 only
    (b) 2 and 4 only
    (c) 1 and 4 only
    (d) 1 and 3 only
  14. What is the number of States and Union Territories in India?
    (a) 29 and 6
    (b) 28 and 7
    (c) 29 and 7
    (d) 28 and 6
  15. Which of the following is not true of the Western Ghats?
    (a) UNESCO declared 39 places in the Western Ghats as ‘World Heritage Sites’ in 2012
    (b) It is one of the eight hottest hotspots of biological diversity in the world
    (c) It has two reserves and thirteen national parks
    (d) ONGC surveys have recently found huge oil reserves
  16. Ayodhya is located at the bank of which river?
    (a) Falgu
    (b) Ganga
    (c) Sarayu
    (d) Yamuna
  17. The Khilafat Committee accepted Mahatma Gandhi’s suggestion for a non-violent non-cooperation protest against the Government in its meeting at
    (a) Bombay
    (b) Nagpur
    (c) Allahabad
    (d) Kanpur
  18. What is Know India Programme (KIP)?
    (a) A programme for children aged 12-15 years from rural areas to make them aware of different aspects of India
    (b) A programme that facilitates visits of rural teachers to different parts of the country
    (c) An out-reach proframme of the Ministry of External Affairs to build closer ties with India’s neighbourhood
    (d) A programme for diaspora youth to promote awareness among them about different aspects of India
  19. What is the perimeter of the figure shown below?

    AJ=10 cm, JI= 12 cm,
    AB=x, CD=x+1, EF=x+2, GH=x+3,
    BC=DE=FG=HI=y
    (a) 44 cm
    (b) 48 cm
    (c) 54 cm
    (d) 58 cm
  20. Special Economic Zones (SEZ) are developed to
    (a) Generate additional economic activity throughout the country
    (b) Beautify suburban areas
    (c) Upgrade the facilities in the countryside
    (d) Promote investment from domestic and foreign source
  21. There are 20 girls and 30 boys in a class, and their respective average marks are found to be 55 and 58. The average marks of the entire class are
    (a) 56.5
    (b) 56.6
    (c) 56.7
    (d) 56.8
  22. Consider an industry with the following features:
    > Budgeted monthly fixed cost=Rs.2,20,000
    > Normal monthly output= 12000 per standard labour hour
    > Standard variable overhead rate = Rs.25 per labour hour
    What would be the total factory overhead rate?
    (a) Rs.40.33 per labour hour
    (b) Rs.41.67 per labour hour
    (c) Rs.42.67 per labour hour
    (d) Rs.43.33 per labour hour
  23. Acid rain is due to
    (a) Sulphur dioxide pollution
    (b) Carbon monoxide pollution
    (c) Pesticide pollution
    (d) Dust particles I the atmosphere
  24. DNA fingerprinting is a technique used for the detection of
    (a) Alzheimer’s disease
    (b) Disputed parentage
    (c) AIDS
    (d) Yellow fever
  25. There are four identically sized and shaped balls in a box, with only its top open. Each ball is of a different colour, these being: Green, Red, White and Blue, only one ball of each colour. Without looking into the box, one ball is randomly picked out and tis color is noted; then it is returned to the box. What are the chances that, in two successive draws, one may get the white ball and the red ball – in whichever order?
    (a) 1/16
    (b) 1/8
    (c) 1/4
    (d) 1/2
  26. Consider the following programmes:
    1. Credit Linked Capital Subsidy Scheme
    2. Micro Finance Programme
    3. National Manufacturing Competitiveness Programme
    4. Cluster Development Programme
    What is common in the above programmes?
    (a) They are related to improving agriculture
    (b) They are programmes related to Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
    (c) They are programmes to improve large scale industries
    (d) They are programmes to improve the traditional cottage industries
  27. SPAM in a system (e-mail) is
    (a) A message distributed indiscriminately
    (b) A search engine
    (c) An activity of the user
    (d) A command initiated by the sender
  28. A cylindrical closed tank contains 36p cubic metres of water, and is filled to half of its capacity. When the cylindrical tank is placed upright on its circular base on level ground, the height of the water in the tank is 4 metres. But when this tank is placed on its side on level ground, what will be the height of the surface of the water above the ground?
    (a) 9 metres
    (b) 6 metres
    (c) 3 metres
    (d) 1 metres
  29. Data regarding inventory of a particular item of usage in the production activities of an organization are: the quantity in stock is 1500 units and the value of this stock is Rs.1,27,500. (This works out to an average unit cost of Rs.85.) During the ensuing year X, and additional 300 units are purchased at a unit cost of Rs.95. Consumption in production processes during the year X has been 600 units. Working by the First-In-First Out basis, the value of the residual inventory of the item at the end of the year X will be
    (a) Rs.1,00,000
    (b) Rs.1,02,500
    (c) Rs.1,05,000
    (d) Rs.1,07,500
  30. Consider the following statements about All India Radio:
    1. It is governed by the Prasar Bharati Board
    2. It was so named in 1936.
    3. It does not provide DTH services.
    4. FM Rainbow and FM Gold are its subsidiary channels.
    Which of the above statements are correct?
    (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
    (b) 3 and 4 only
    (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
  31. The famous ‘Giri’ approach in Industrial Relations in India espouses the cause of
    (a) Adjudication
    (b) Compulsory Collective Bargaining
    (c) Conciliation
    (d) Arbitration
  32. In a race, the first four winners are to be awarded points. Each winner’s points must be 5 more than that of the next position winner. Total sum of the points to be awarded is 50. What will be the points for the third position winner?
    (a) 30
    (b) 20
    (c) 10
    (d) 5
  33. Which of the following trends in FDI inflows are correct?
    1. In 2003- 04, the FDI Enquiry inflow percentage growth was negative.
    2. From 2004-05 to 2007-08, the FDI inflows were very high and positive.
    3. In 2008-09, the FDI inflows were positive, but had decreased relative to the previous year.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    (a) 1 and 3 only
    (b) 1, 2 and 3
    (c) 2 and 3 only
    (d) 1 and 2 only
  34. In a raising an object to a given height by means of an inclined plane, as compared with raising the object vertically, there is a reduction in
    (a) Force to be applied
    (b) Work required
    (c) Distance covered
    (d) Friction force
  35. The mean and standard deviation of a set of 16 non-zero positive numbers in an observation are 26 and 3.5 respectively. The mean and standard deviation of another set of 24 non-zero positive numbers without changing the circumstances of both sets of observations, are 29 and 3, respectively. The mean and standard deviation of their combined set of observations will respectively be
    (a) 27.8 and 3.21
    (b) 36.2 and 3.32
    (c) 27.8 and 3.32
    (d) 26.2 and 3.21
  36. A sinusoidal transverse wave is travelling on a string. Any point on the string moves in
    (a) SHM with the same angular frequency as that of the wave
    (b) SHM with a different frequency than that of the wave
    (c) Uniform circular motion with the same angular speed as that of the wave
    (d) Uniform circular motion with a different angular speed than that of the wave
  37. The device that work with computer systems as soon as they are connected are described as
    (a) Hot Swapping
    (b) Bay Swap
    (c) Plug-N-Play
    (d) USB Swapping
  38. Which one of the following software applications would be the most appropriate for performing numerical and statistical calculations?
    (a) Database
    (b) Spreadsheet
    (c) Graphics package
    (d) Document processor
  39. Consider the following statements on Global Positioning System (GPS):
    1. GPS allows accurate time-stamping on ATM transactions.
    2. GPS relies on a set of satellites for transferring signals worldwide
    Which of the above statements is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
  40. Consider the following statements:
    Cellular technology evolves in stages called Generation (G), where
    1. A Generation represents the number of subscribers; higher Generation has more subscribers.
    2. 2G technology has two standards CDMA and GSM.
    3. 2G technology has CDMA standard and 3G has GSM standard.
    Which of the above statements is/are correct?
    (a) 1 and 3 only
    (b) 1 only
    (c) 3 only
    (d) 2 only
  41. Which of the following statements reflect the distinctive feature about 6th century BCE Ganas or Sanghas?
    1. The ancient Indian Ganas were oligarchies.
    2. The ancient Indian Ganas were non-monarchical states.
    3. Magadha, Kosala, Vatsa and Avati were the most powerful States of that era.
    4. The procedures of the Buddhist monastic order (Sangha) were patterned on the Sangha politics.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
    (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
    (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
    (d) 3 and 4 only
  42. What is the chronological sequence of the following developments?
    1. Decline in the Export of Indian cotton
    2. Cotton boom in India
    3. Civil War in America
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    (a) 1, 3 and 2
    (b) 2, 3 and 1
    (c) 1, 2 and 3
    (d) 2, 1 and 3
  43. Which of the following are the typical differences between the private insurance programs and the social insurance programmes and the social insurance programmes?
    1. Adequacy versus Equity
    2. Voluntary versus Mandatory participation
    3. Contractual versus Statutory Rights
    4. Funding
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
    (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
    (c) 3 and 4 only
    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
  44. ‘Unbalanced’ Growth is hypothesized when
    (a) Expansion can take place simultaneously on several growth routes
    (b) Supply of labour is fixed
    (c) Supply of capital is unlimited
    (d) Active sectors need to, and do energize sluggish sectors
  45. Which of the following are incorporated in the Government approved National Telecom Policy, 2012
    1. Broadband for all with a minimum download speed of two megabits per second
    2. India’s rural tele-density to be improved from 39% to 70% in the next five years
    3. Roaming charges shall be scrapped
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 1 and 3 only
    (c) 2 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3
  46. Which of the following is one of the Millennium Development Goals fixed by the UNO?
    (a) Halving extreme poverty and halting the spread of HIV/AIDS
    (b) Develop a new variety of food grains which can ensure bumper crops
    (c) To ensure that population does not increase in the least developed countries
    (d) Develop procedures towards adequate and timely forewarning on hurricanes and tsunamis
  47. The term ‘Carbon footprint’ means
    (a) A region which is rich in coal mines
    (b) The amount of reduction in the emission of CO2 by a country
    (c) The use of Carbon in manufacturing industries
    (d) The amount of greenhouse gases produced by our day-to-day activities
  48. Amongst the following, who is the latest recipient of the ‘Bharat Ratna’ award?
    (a) Sachin Tendulkar
    (b) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
    (c) Amartya Sen
    (d) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
  49. ‘Green Revolution’ in India was expeditiously feasible in zones of
    (a) High rainfall
    (b) Moderate rainfall
    (c) Assured irrigation
    (d) Higher population density
  50. What is Apartheid?
    (a) An international organization of peace
    (b) A medical term
    (c) A trade charter
    (d) A policy of racial segregation
  51. Transportation plays a great role in any economy. Which of the following modes of transportation has the highest elasticity?
    (a) Air
    (b) Rail
    (c) Road
    (d) Water
  52. How does an expansionary monetary policy affect the rate of interest and level of income?
    (a) Raises the level of income but lowers the rate of interest
    (b) Raises the rate of interest but lowers the level of income
    (c) Raises both, the rate of interest and the level of income
    (d) Lowers both, the rate of interest and the level of income
  53. In a medium-size township, the trend of annual immigration is an addition of 20% of the population as it was at the beginning; also 15% of the population as it was at the beginning is estimated to relocate elsewhere every year. If the current population is 80000, what is the likely population three years hence?
    (a) 90000
    (b) 91200
    (c) 92000
    (d) 92610
  54. The Problem of Rupee was whose Dsc Thesis?
    (a) Sri Aurobindo
    (b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
    (c) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
    (d) Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar
  55. What is the correct sequence of tributaries of the river Ganga from West to East?
    (a) Yamuna, Ghaghara, Son, Gandak and Kosi
    (b) Ghaghara, Tamuna, Gandak, Kosi and Son
    (c) Yamuna, Ghaghara, Gandak, Son, and Kosi
    (d) Ghadhara, Yamuna, Kosi, Gandak and Son
  56. There are two circles of radii r1 and r2 (r1<r2). The area of the bigger circle is 693/2 cm2. The difference of their circumferences is 22 cm. What is the sum of the diameters of the two circles?
    (a) 17.5 cm
    (b) 22 cm
    (c) 28.5 cm
    (d) 35 cm
  57. Numbers a1, a2, a3, a4, a5,….a24 are in arithmetic progression and
    a1+a5+a10+a15+a20+a24=225.
    The value of
    a1+a2+ a3+ a4+ a5 +….a23+a24 is
    (a) 525
    (b) 725
    (c) 850
    (d) 900
  58. Under the Constitution of India, which of the following statements are correct?
    1. The Constitution is supreme.
    2. There is a clear division of powers between the Union and the State Governments.
    3. Amendments to the Constitution have to follow the prescribed procedure.
    4. The Union Parliament and the State Legislatures are sovereign.
    5. The Preamble to the Constitution cannot be invoked to determine the ambit of Fundamental Rights.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
    (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
    (c) 1, 4 and 5 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
  59. When the Government ownership in Public Sector Undertakings is diluted, it is called
    (a) Privatization
    (b) Public-Private Partnership
    (c) Disinvestment
    (d) Deflation
  60. The Right to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 provides for education to every child in the age group
    (a) 5-13 years
    (b) 8-16 years
    (c) 7-15 years
    (d) 6-14 years

Answers

  1. c
  2. a
  3. c
  4. d
  5. d
  6. b
  7. b
  8. c
  9. c
  10. b
  11. b
  12. c
  13. c
  14. b
  15. b
  16. a
  17. b
  18. a
  19. d
  20. c
  21. d
  22. a
  23. b
  24. a
  25. c
  26. d
  27. d
  28. c
  29. d
  30. c
  31. c
  32. c
  33. a
  34. d
  35. d
  36. a
  37. b
  38. b
  39. d
  40. c
  41. b
  42. d
  43. c
  44. a
  45. c
  46. d
  47. b
  48. c
  49. d
  50. a
  51. d
  52. d
  53. c
  54. d
  55. d
  56. a
  57. a
  58. c
  59. d
  60. c
  61. a
  62. c
  63. d
  64. b
  65. b
  66. b
  67. b
  68. b
  69. d
  70. d
  71. d
  72. c
  73. d
  74. c
  75. c
  76. d
  77. a
  78. d
  79. d
  80. d
  81. a
  82. b
  83. b
  84. b
  85. a
  86. c
  87. c
  88. c
  89. d
  90. c
  91. b
  92. a
  93. a
  94. a
  95. c
  96. b
  97. c
  98. d
  99. b
  100. d
  101. b
  102. d
  103. a
  104. b
  105. b
  106. c
  107. d
  108. c
  109. a
  110. d
  111. d
  112. a
  113. d
  114. a
  115. c
  116. d